Hi all,

While trying to solve the Legendre ODE, my serie (obtain by Frobenius method) was transform by Maple by the following:

> y1x(p);

                             /[  1    1   1  ]  [1]   2\
                    hypergeom|[- - p, - + - p], [-], x |
                             \[  2    2   2  ]  [2]    /

where y1x is my serie and p is the degree of the ODE.  But at the screen, the output is:

So my questions are

1.  What the 2 and the 1 around the F means?

2.  Is it normal that this special function is the solution of the Legendre ODE?

(in fact, I test it for different p::posint and it worked)

3.  Can someone help me to have the ratio |a(k+1)/a(k)| so I can do the ratio test for the convergence of that serie.  In fact, any additionnals informations ,other than the helps pages, would be very welcome.

Thanks in advance

Mario

Hi all,

Hi,

> restart;
> read "D:/Data/Data7/Advisor/csum.m";
> a :=n ->  (5/n)^(1/n);
> csum(a(n), n);

                                    false

But

HI all,

I know that :

alias(delta=Dirac):

`δ*g` = int(delta(x)*g(t-x), x = 0 .. t) and int(delta(x)*g(t-x), x = 0 .. t) = g(t);

But look what happen.  Can someone justify this behavior

Hi all,

You will find in the attach worksheet, an example where the solution of an ODE, solve by inttrans, does not agree with the solution of Maple found trough dsolve.  Why they do not agree.?

laplace ODE.mw

thanks in advance

Mario